Introduction
It is a joy to read the interactions in the Gospels where Jesus speaks with a woman. One aspect that can dampen this joy for some readers is that Jesus sometimes addresses a female character simply as “woman.” In English-speaking societies, it’s impolite to address a woman this way. It sounds abrupt, cold, and disrespectful. From everything we know about Jesus, however, we can assume that he wasn’t being rude, especially as “woman” often occurs in statements where he says wonderful things.
The Canaanite Woman
Jesus addresses a female character directly as “woman” (Greek: gynai) seven times in the Gospels.[1] The first occurrence is in Matthew 15:21–28. This passage is an account of Jesus’s encounter with a Canaanite woman who is desperate because her daughter is suffering from demon possession.
The woman is portrayed as possessing tenacity and wit, and Jesus praises her. He says, “Woman, you have great faith” (Matt. 15:28). In the next phrase we are told, “And right then her daughter was healed.” Jesus rewarded the woman’s faith and perseverance.
While his initial silence towards her would have been disconcerting and may have been perceived as rudeness, there is no hint of disrespect when Jesus does speak to her and calls her “woman.”
I’ve written a bit about the Canaanite woman here.
The Bent-Over Woman
The second occurrence of “woman” (gynai) is in Luke 13:10–17. In this story, Jesus is in a synagogue on the Sabbath. There he sees a woman who was unable to stand straight because she had been tormented by an evil spirit for eighteen years.
In front of those present, Jesus calls her over to him and tells her, “Woman, you are set free from your sickness” (Luke 13:12). When he placed his hands on her, she instantly stood up straight and praised God. We can imagine the enormous relief and joy she felt.
Later in the passage, Jesus defends his actions to the angry synagogue leader and poses a rhetorical question, “Isn’t it necessary that this woman, a daughter of Abraham, bound by Satan for eighteen long years, be set free from her bondage on the Sabbath day?” (Luke 13:16). Jesus’s words express regard, sympathy, and care for the woman.
I have more about the Bent-over woman here.
Jesus’s Mother Mary
There are a few conversations in John’s Gospel where Jesus addresses a woman as “woman” (gynai). We misunderstand his tone if we think this is a severe word when, in fact, it could convey both esteem and affection.[2] Mary the mother of Jesus appears only twice in John’s Gospel, and in both passages, Jesus calls her “woman.”
When Mary tells Jesus that the wine had run out at the wedding at Cana, he replies with, “Woman, what does that have to do with me? My time hasn’t come yet” (John 2:4).[3] While his response doesn’t sound positive in English, Mary is unfazed, and she tells the servants at the wedding to do what Jesus tells them. And water is turned into fine wine. Jesus revealed his glory through this sign, the first sign recorded in John’s Gospel, and as a result his disciples trusted in him.
A couple of years later, while hanging on the cross, Jesus transfers the responsibility of his mother’s care to the beloved disciple. Despite experiencing unimaginable pain and profound degradation, Jesus makes sure Mary will be looked after.
When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, “Woman, here is your son.” Then he said to the disciple, “Here is your mother.” And from that time on, this disciple took her into his home. (John 19:26–27)
I’ve written more about Mary here.
The Samaritan Woman
“Woman” also occurs in the lengthy dialogue between Jesus and the Samaritan woman recorded in John 4:7–26. In response to her questions and statements, Jesus tells this spiritually thirsty woman about his gift of “living water,” and he reveals to her that he is the Messiah. Towards the end of the conversation, Jesus speaks to her about true worship. By addressing her directly here, he focuses attention on his words.
Jesus said to her, “Believe me, woman, the time is coming when you and your people will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem. You and your people worship what you don’t know; we worship what we know because salvation is from the Jews. But the time is coming—and is here!—when true worshippers will worship in spirit and truth . . .” (John 4:21–23)
Jesus taught important, life-giving theology to the Samaritan woman who then went to tell others about him.
I have more about the Samaritan Woman here.
The Woman Caught in Adultery
The woman caught in adultery in John 8 is the next to be called “woman” by Jesus. He is in the temple, with people gathered around him, when some experts on Jewish law and some Pharisees bring in a woman who has committed adultery. They make her stand in the centre of the crowd. In this tense and humiliating scene, they use her, hoping to trap Jesus into saying something that will incriminate him.
The men ask Jesus, “In the Law, Moses commanded us to stone women like this. What do you say?” (John 8:5). But Jesus is not playing their game, and he doesn’t humiliate the woman further by looking at her. He stoops down and begins writing in the dust on the ground with his finger.
After initially ignoring them, Jesus stands up and says, “Whoever hasn’t sinned should throw the first stone” (John 8:7). He then continues to ignore the men. The woman’s accusers leave, one by one, but she is still standing in the middle of the gathered crowd. Jesus then stands up and speaks to her. He asks two rhetorical questions, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?” (John 8:10). Then he goes on, “Neither do I condemn you. Go, and from now on, don’t sin anymore.”
This woman had broken the law of Moses. She had committed adultery, which was a major transgression in the first century, but Jesus doesn’t rebuke or reprimand her. There is no sign of disrespect from him towards the woman even in this story.
Mary Magdalene
Mary Magdalene is the last person in the Gospels to be addressed as “woman” by Jesus. John 20:11–18 gives an emotional account of her standing alone at the empty tomb. She is weeping because she believes someone has stolen Jesus’s body. Two angels, which are seated in the tomb where Jesus’s body had been, also address Mary Magdalene as “woman” when they ask, “Woman, why are you crying?” (John 20:13). Again, there is no hint that this kind of address was curt, cold, or impolite.
Mary turns and sees Jesus alive but mistakes him for a gardener. Jesus speaks to her and asks, “Woman, why are you crying? Who are you looking for?” In the next verse, he says her name “Mary” and she then realizes the man is Jesus her beloved rabboni (“teacher”). She holds him, but Jesus gives her a commission instead. So Mary goes and enthusiastically tells the other disciples, “I have seen the Lord!”
I have more about Mary the Magdalene here.
Conclusion
In all these narratives, Jesus says “woman” to get the attention of a female character and to signal that he is about to say something personal or weighty, or both. Rhetorically, “woman” adds emphasis and focus to his statements. Some of these statements accompanied healing, others offered comfort or conveyed theology.
It is evident that Jesus cared for these women and treated them with respect. Addressing them directly as “woman” was a mark of this respect. We follow his example when we honour women and address them in polite, culturally appropriate ways.[4] And like Jesus, we can say life-giving words of praise, encouragement, comfort, and healing.
Footnotes
Bible quotations in this article are from the Common English Bible (CEB)
[1] “Woman” is an accurate translation of the Greek noun gynai that occurs in these conversations. This word is the singular vocative form of gynē (“woman”). The singular vocative form is used when someone is directly addressing a person.
Liddell, Scott, and Jones, in their exhaustive lexicon of ancient Greek (LSJ), note that the vocative form of gynē can be used as “a term of respect and affection,” and they give a couple of examples of this positive use from Classical Greek literature.”
Bauer and Danker, in their lexicon (BDAG) which is recognised as one of the best for New Testament Greek, write that the vocative gynai “is by no means a disrespectful form of address,” and they give several examples from Classical and Hellenistic Greek.
Allan T. Loder looks at inscriptional evidence of gynai in Hellenistic Greek here: DailyDoseofGreek.com.
[2] Gynai can be used in a range of contexts and there is no English word that captures its nuances. So I prefer English translations that keep it simple and just have “woman.”
[3] John 2:4 contains an idiom ti emoi kai soi (“what [is it] to me and to you?”). This is translated in the CEB as “what does that have to do with me?” This expression also occurs in Mark 5:7. A practically identical expression (ti umin kai soi) occurs in Mark 1:24, Matthew 8:29, and Luke 4:34. This idiom also occurs in the Septuagint in Judges 11:12, 3 Kingdoms 17:18, 4 Kingdoms 3:13, 2 Chronicles 35:21, Hosea 14:8, and in non-biblical Greek texts. The translation of John 2:4 in the 1995 NASB may capture the sense better than the CEB: “what does that have to do with us?”
[4] My friend Julie Frady has spent some time in Spain. She told me that, while it is grating to hear a woman called “woman” in English, it isn’t grating to hear someone call a woman “mujer” (the Spanish word for “woman”). Julie suggests this is because “woman,” in direct address, is almost always used negatively in English and with disrespect. In Spanish, however, “Mujer!” is used all the time, for all sorts of reasons, and mostly as a term of endearment, whether the speaker is being light-hearted or serious. The use of gynai in the ancient world may well have been similar.
A version of this article first appeared in Mutuality 29.4 (2022): 8–10. (See here.) Mutuality is published by CBE International.
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23 thoughts on “Jesus Called Her “Woman””
As I understand it, the primary language of Jesus was aramaic, and at least with his mother, that is the language Jesus would have spoken. So when he is quoted in greek, we don’t get to know what he _actually_ said. Do you know anything about what aramaic word he could possibly have used, and how that word worked?
As for english translation, would «madam» be better in these examples?
Hello Knut. You’re right that it’s unlikely Jesus actually used the Greek word gynai. I don’t know Aramaic, sorry.
I’ve seen a few people suggest “madam” or “ma’am” but these words sound too formal to me. I have never been addressed as either “woman” or “madam” when spoken to, and I wouldn’t want to. I’ve been addressed as “madam” in formal letters from strangers, however. To me, “madam” is not an affectionate form of address.
The idea of “ma’am” resonates with me, too, and I’ve heard it shared as an example of the American-English equivalent of this word. For me, I would use the word “ma’am” almost exclusively after the words “Excuse me,” when trying to get the attention of a woman I don’t know.
“Excuse me, ma’am, can you help me with this purchase?”
“Excuse me, ma’am, but you dropped your wallet.”
Perhaps it is very much a regional use that is appropriate, and isn’t always very polite in other places. But when I think of “polite, culturally appropriate ways” to address a woman, “ma’am” is the word that comes to mind for me.
I hear what you’re saying, Nathan.
“Ma’am” may fit some of the encounters mentioned above, but Australians (I’m Australian) don’t call their mother or a dear female friend (such as Mary M), “ma’am.” Perhaps they do in America.
And people in other countries happily call their female friends, even their wives, the equivalent of “woman.”
Great article, as usual. I appreciate the references to other articles.
I decided, out of curiosity, to see if Jesus used the word ἄνθρωπε in the same way when addressing a man. I could only find two cases: Luke 5:20 and 12:14. Interestingly, one time it sounds tender and warm and the other time sounds challenging. I suppose context/situation might make a difference as we interpret such verses. (I think this is also true of the comment about Spanish use of “mujer.” I lived for eleven years in Ecuador and the word was not always complimentary.)
I’m also concerned about the idea that we do not know what Jesus actually said. I remember Jeremias’ book – Was it The Prayers of Jesus or The Parables?- in which he suggested some of the Aramaic possibilities that Jesus may have said. But what does a statement like “we don’t know what he said” reflect on our understanding of inspiration?
Again, thank you. I always enjoy your work.
Thanks for your comment, Dan. Interesting!
I looked for the vocative of ἀνὴρ (“man”) just now. The singular occurs once in the New Testament, 1 Corinthians 7:16, and the plural occurs 29 times, only in speeches in Acts. (I’ve previously written about this use in speeches in a footnote, here.)
Most Christians believe the words of the New Testament are inspired–that the Holy Spirit guided the authors. The fact that Jesus’s words were most likely not copied down verbatim doesn’t affect this belief.
In your first footnote, your explanation of gyne meaning “a term of respect and affection” immediately reminded me of my African friends. They use the term “Auntie” to show honor and also indicate relational closeness. My kids were very fortunate to have many aunties when they were little in that community.
In my mind, I will use the term “Auntie” when reading these passages. Thank you.
Hi Rachel, The idea of “Auntie” works well. I’m going to keep it in mind too. I am called “Ma” by my African friends, and I love it.
That’s a great honorific! I think Ma conveys even more affection. Congrats on earning such a beautiful title.
Again, another fine article Marg, especially in your footnotes particularly one and two. A few points I wish to make: First in English formal addresses seem to have disappeared over my lifetime. I remember having to write a “business” letter in High School where it had to begin with Mr. or Mrs. and later Miss and Ms. and if the sex of your recipient was unknown it was “Dear Sir and/or Madam.” English seems to have left this in the dust (just use the name of the person is what I believe is current); but it does present the point in a culture these rules regarding formal addresses can change as they are different along cultural lines. In Germany, for example, the rules regarding formality are very different and have an affect on which pronoun to use: du or Sie.
But more importantly is that the vocative address is a sign of respect use to give attention to the addressee. It can be personalized as in “My Woman,” or specialized as in “Dear Woman,” or particular “Precious Woman.” In modern English this can sound patronizing, but the one thing is that the vocative address in certainly not dismissive (as in your just a woman) or generalized (as in I do not need to call you by name since you’re a woman). Madam has also fallen out of use in the English being seen as patronizing rather than respectful, but I feel that at least at sometime prior in English usage that would have been the proper translation, although one language cannot truly reflect another in every sense.
The last point then: King James translates it as woman and not madam; nor have I found any translation since that uses madam. Now am I just overthinking this or is there something more that needs to be explored?
Hi Roger, I really don’t think there is, and possibly was, an English word that conveys the varieties or depths of tone that gynai apparently had. I don’t hear any nuance of affection in the word “madam.” But that could just be me. Maybe 100 or 200 years ago “madam” could sometimes denote real affection.
Also, there’s no implicit sense of respect in the vocative case. It is used in numerous different contexts, sometimes when addressing someone disrespectfully. Matthew 16:23 springs to mind.
Hi Marg, thanks for the good article. Do you think that the second Adam is addressing Woman metaphorically in these passages?
Also, you wrote “which was a major transgression in the first century”. Does adultery not constitute a major transgression today?
Hi Bob, I realise there are different ways of approaching the biblical text, but I have difficulty seeing Jesus as the second Adam and the women as an “Eve” in any of these encounters. And I hate to think what kind of implications might be drawn from such an approach to reading these stories.
Adultery is still considered a transgression, but it’s not a crime in modern Western nations, and we don’t stone adulterers.
Hello Marg
Your friend Julie Frady is absolutely right. In Spanish (at least, in southern Spain), “mujer” is one of the most common terms of address to women, even of a husband to his wife and also when used by one woman speaking to another. (I write as the husband of a lovely lady from southern Spain!) What it conveys depends on the tone of voice and the context, but it usually conveys affection and often humour. No Spanish-speaking reader is surprised when Jesus addresses women with this word, and the (false) connotations assumed by English-speaking readers would never cross their minds.
I authored the Spanish adaptation of Jeremy Duff’s The Essentials of New Testament Greek, Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 2005. The Spanish edition is called “Curso de Griego Bíblico”, CLIE, USA and Spain, 2019. See https://www.clie.es/curso-de-griego-biblico
Julie is right to say that it is used “mostly as a term of endearment, whether the speaker is being light-hearted or serious.”
Thanks, Trevor. It’s good to hear from you again.
It sounds as if this is used much as ‘Anake or Aunty is used here in Hawai’i. It can be a specifically respectful address to or of a woman with whom one has a personal relationship or used generally to designate respect of a woman older than the speaker.
In other languages, it is common to have many words of affection or respect outside the person’s name when addressing someone. I can think of many in own family’s native language of Malayalam. It has been an important part of eastern culture throughout history, and only looking through the lens of English language will miss this. I think a great addition to this discussion would be exploring how across languages this is normal. I think someone outside of solely a western context would instantly have a different grasp of this.
Hi Sheena, it seems “woman” is only an issue for people who only know English.
I first heard the word ‘gynai’ while taking Greek in seminary at the age of 25. I was captivated by the sound in English: ‘gooney,’ like the gooney bird.
I looked forward to a time when I could mention (from the pulpit) the incident at the wedding, (τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι;) and reference the fact that Jesus called His mama ‘gooney.’
Probably a good thing that it never worked out.
i think the hawaiian bible does it pretty well.
https://www.bible.com/en-GB/bible/76/LUK.13.HPB
“Sistah” works for the bent-over woman. It may not work as well for Jesus’s mother Mary. 🙂
The use of “mum” in England and Africa comes to mind. It’s not the same as ma’am; it is more personal and respectful. My students in Africa (who I’m personally close to) call me “mum” and I love it. (The others call me Mrs. T because they can’t pronounce my name. Works for me.!) There is no lack of respect in Africa between students and teachers, in fact almost too much! So, “mum” connotes both great respect and affection. I love it, and it’s how I think of Jesus’ use of “woman”.
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